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102-400Exam Code: 102-400
Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 102, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 2 of 2
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101-400Exam Code: 101-400
Exam Name: LPI Level 1 Exam 101, Junior Level Linux Certification, Part 1 of 2
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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
Which command reads and displays the current contents of the Kernel Ring Buffer on the command
line? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Answer: dmesg

101-400 Brain Dumps   

NO.2 Which command is used to query information about the available packages on a Debian
system?
A. apt-cache
B. apt-search
C. apt-get
D. dpkg
E. dpkg-search
Answer: A

101-400 Guide   

NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Which SysV init configuration file is commonly used to set the default run level? (Specify the full
name of the file, including path.)
Answer: inittab

101-400 Bible   

NO.4 Which of the following examples for Bash file globbing matches a file named root-can-do-
this.txt when used in the directory holding that file? (Choose three correct answers.)
A. {root,user,admin}-can-??-this.txt
B. root*can*do??this.txt
C. root***{can,may}-do-this.[tT][xX][tT]
D. r[oOoO]t-can-do*.txt
E. root*can?do-this.{txt,odt}
Answer: A,D,E

101-400 Check   

 

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CFR-210Exam Code: CFR-210
Exam Name: Logical Operations CyberSec First Responder
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NO.1 An incident responder notices many entries in an apache access log file that contain
semicolons.
Which of the following attacks is MOST likely being attempted?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Remote file inclusion
C. Account brute force
D. SQL injection
Answer: D

CFR-210 Training   

NO.2 Which of the following are legally compliant forensics applications that will detect ADS or a file
with an incorrect file extension? (Choose two.)
A. dd
B. FTK
C. EnCase
D. Procmon
E. Regedit
Answer: A,E

CFR-210 Exercise   CFR-210 Revision   

NO.3 A malicious attacker has compromised a database by implementing a Python-based script that
will automatically establish an SSH connection daily between the hours of 2:00am and 5:00am.
Which of the following is the MOST common motive for the attack vector that was used?
A. Persistence/maintaining access
B. Pivoting
C. Lateral movement
D. Exfiltration
Answer: C

CFR-210 Plan   CFR-210 Provider   

NO.4 Which of the following is the reason that out-of-band communication is used during a security
incident?
A. Other communication methods are unreliable.
B. The SMTP server may be compromised.
C. The incident response systems may be busy.
D. An attacker could be monitoring network traffic.
Answer: A

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642-996Exam Code: 642-996
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric
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300-180Exam Code: 300-180
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NO.1 Which type of 40 Gigabit Ethernet optics should be used for interconnect when the number of
multimode fiber
strands used should be kept as low as possible?
A. 40GBASE-SR4
B. 40GBASE-LR4-Lite
C. 40GBASE-SR-BiDi
D. 40GBASE-CR4
Answer: C

642-996 Discount   642-996 Sure   

NO.2 Which technology provides additional scalability and simplification of an Ethernet network,
providing more efficient
forwarding and eliminating the need for the Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. OTV
B. FabricPath
C. vPC
D. PVST+
Answer: B

642-996 Club   

NO.3 Which statement about Cisco UCS pass-through switching is true?
A. It allows the management of the virtual network and configuration of virtual ports to be handled
within Cisco UCS manager.
B. Inter VM traffic is sent through the hypervisor switch.
C. It requires a license.
D. It requires VMDirectPath enabled.
Answer: A

642-996 Cheap             642-996 Environment   

 

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NO.1 An administrator has recently installed a new ESXi 6.x Host, and during the configuration
notices sporadic network problems.
To check whether the issue occurred sometime during the configuration, the administrator would like
to reset the system.
How can this be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?
A. Use a host profile to reset the configuration to a default state.
B. Select the Reset System Configuration option from the vSphere Client when connected directly to
the host.
C. Run the ESXi installer again and reinstall the host.
D. From the Direct Console User Interface, select Reset System Configuration.
Answer: D

NO.2 An administrator has just completed installing an ESXi 6.x host, but doesn't know what address
has been configured.
Where is the ESXi host IP address configured?
A. vSphere Web Client
B. vSphere Client
C. Direct Console User Interface
D. RVC console
Answer: C

2V0-620 Real   

NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
-- Exhibit -
An administrator attempts to enable Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) on a cluster. The
operation results in a compatibility error, as shown in the exhibit.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The XD/NX CPU features have not been enabled in the BIOS of the server.
B. The CPUs in the ESXi host do not support hardware virtualization capabilities.
C. The CPUs in the ESXi host are not AMD CPUs.
D. There is no shared storage between the hosts in the cluster.
Answer: C

2V0-620 Outline   2V0-620 Questions   

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2V0-620Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Exam
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70-339Exam Code: 70-339
Exam Name: Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
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70-533Exam Code: 70-533
Exam Name: Implementing Microsoft Azure Infrastructure Solutions
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NO.1 You have an application that uses SQL Server in an Azure virtual machine (VM) to store data.
If the VM running the primary instance of SQL Server fails:
-The application must automatically begin using a backup copy of the SQL Server data.
-The recovery solution must guarantee that no data is lost.
If the primary datacenter fails:
-There must be a way to manually switch to a secondary data center.
-Some data loss is acceptable.
You create an active datacenter named AD1 and a passive datacenter named PD1. AD1 has two SQL
Server instances.
PD1 has one SQL Server instance.
You need to implement the replication and failover solutions for the application.
What should you do?
A. In AD1, configure asynchronous replication and automatic failover. In PD1, configure synchronous
replication and manual failover from AD1.
B. In AD1, configure synchronous replication and manual failover. In PD1, configure asynchronous
replication and manual failover from AD1.
C. In AD1, configure synchronous replication and automatic failover. In PD1, configure synchronous
replication and manual failover from AD1.
D. In AD1, configure asynchronous replication and manual failover. In PD1, configure asynchronous
replication and manual failover from AD1.
Answer: C

70-533 Ebook   

NO.2 A Windows Azure application retrieves data from SQL Azure. You need to recommend an
approach for improving application query performance.
What should you recommend?
A. Open a new database connection when an operation times out.
B. Use a clustered index on the SQL Azure database tables.
C. Create a database view to retrieve the data.
D. Create SQL Azure database table indexes based on application queries.
Answer: D

70-533 Study   70-533 Cost   

NO.3 You are migrating a local virtual machine (VM) to an Azure VM. You upload the virtual hard disk
(VHD) file to Azure
Blob storage as a Block Blob.
You need to change the Block blob to a page blob.
What should you do?
A. Update the type of the blob programmatically by using the Azure Storage .NET SDK.
B. Update the metadata of the current blob and set the Blob-Type key to Page.
C. Delete the Block Blob and re-upload the VHD as a page blob.
D. Create a new empty page blob and use the Azure Blob Copy Power Shell cmdlet to copy the
current data to the new blob.
Answer: C

70-533 Interactive   70-533 Plan   
Explanation:
* To copy the data files to Windows Azure Storage by using one of the following methods: AzCopy
Tool, Put Blob (REST
API) and Put Page (REST API), or Windows Azure Storage Client Library for .NET or a third-party
storage explorer tool.
Important: When using this new enhancement, always make sure that you create a page blob not a
block blob.
* Azure has two main files storage format:
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn466429.aspx

 

New JN0-661 Test Sample Questions JN0-661 Test Experience exam software

 

NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, routers R1 through R5 exist in a fully-meshed IBGP group.
You want the routes received through EBGP on R1 to be advertised to the EBGP peer connected to
R5.
You want the routes received through EBGP on R5 to be installed on R1; however, you do not want
the those routes to be advertised to the EBGP peer connected to R1.
Which two actions will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a route reflector group and configure the no-client-reflect parameter on the route
reflector.
B. Implement an export policy on R5 to add the well-known no-export community to the EBGP
routes.
C. Implement an import policy on R1 to add the well-known no-export community to the EBGP
routes.
D. Implement an export policy on R5 to add the well-known no-advertise community to the EBGP
routes.
Answer: B,D

JN0-661 Measureup   

NO.2 You need to ensure that your high-priority traffic uses the best-possible route while your best-
effort traffic uses a lower preference route. You want to use CoS-based forwarding to use the DSCP
values of the different types of traffic to assign the LSP that should be used for the next hop
Which three additions must be made to the configuration to satisfy the requirement? (Choose three.)
A. a policy statement for LSP next-hop selection
B. an important policy applied to the forwarding table
C. an export policy applied to the forwarding table
D. a multifield firewall filter for LSP next-hop selection
E. a class-of-service forwarding policy
Answer: C,D,E

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
You have the Layer 2 VPN configuration shown in the exhibit. You have been asked to determine the
remote site ID for ge-1/0/4.512. What is the remote site ID?
A. 1
B. unspecified
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

JN0-661 Visual   

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
You are trying to establish an 1515 Level 1 adjacency over ge-1/0/1 between R1 and R7 without
impacting the other IS-IS adjacencies on R1. Which configuration change would satisfy this
requirement?
A. Disable Level 2 globally on R7.
B. Change the area on R1 to match R7.
C. Disable Level 2 globally on R1.
D. Change the area on R7 to match R1.
Answer: D

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JN0-661Exam Code: JN0-661
Exam Name: Service Provider Routing and Switching
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NO.1 The best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus is:
A. Fluid Volume Deficit.
B. Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.
C. Impaired Skin Integrity.
D. Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements.
Answer: B

NCLEX-PN Hub   
Explanation:
Newly diagnosed diabetics need to learn about their disease, medications, glucose testing, possibly
insulin injections, foot care, sick-day plans, and so forth. Choices 1 and 4 are diagnoses to prevent,
but no evidence suggests that they exist at this point. Diabetics might have more or less nutrition
than body requirements-type II is likely to be more, but type I is likely to be less.Physiological
Adaptation

NO.2 While walking in the hallway of an acute care unit of the hospital, the nurse overhears the
change of shift report. The nurse should:
A. ignore the situation.
B. return to his or her own unit and not disclose that confidential information has been overheard.
C. disregard the information because it changes quickly on the acute care unit and is outdated within
2-3 hours anyway.
D. make the charge nurse on the unit aware of the situation so that he or she can take the necessary
steps to maintain the confidentiality of the information being reported.
Answer: D

NCLEX-PN Valid   
Explanation:
To protect the confidentiality of the information being reported, the nurse should make the charge
nurse on the unit aware of the situation so that the information can be communicated in an
appropriate way in privacy.
Coordinated Care

NO.3 Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic
resonance imaging?
A. "I can have the test even though I have an artificial hip."
B. "I need to wear earplugs during the test."
C. "I can have the test even though I have a pacemaker."
D. "I can leave my metal jewelry on during the test."
Answer: B

NCLEX-PN Updates   NCLEX-PN Sheets   
Explanation:
Due to the loud noises from the scanner moving to obtain images, earplugs need to be worn. No
metal objects are allowed, including jewelry, pacemakers, and artificial joints.
Reduction of Risk Potential

NO.4 What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-
person CPR?
A. 15:2
B. 2:15
C. 5:1
D. 1:5
Answer: A
Explanation:
The appropriate ratio for adult CPR is 15 compressions to 2 ventilations.Reduction of Risk
Potential

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